1. How many deployment slots can a website have (besides the main slot)?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: A website can have up to four deployment slots besides the main slot, not just two.
B. Incorrect: A website can have up to four deployment slots besides the main slot, not just three.
C. Correct: A website can have up to four deployment slots besides the main slot.
D. Incorrect: A website can have a maximum of four deployment slots besides the main slot.
2. For a website to be co-located with other websites in the same web hosting plan, what must they have in common? (Choose all that apply.)
B. Correct: Because the private key is used to decrypt all Azure traffic, its compromise would mean compromising your website security—which would not be possible if you had your own certificate.
C. Correct: You can only use the *.azurewebsites.net certificate against that domain.
D. Incorrect: Data is encrypted with the certificate for the *.azurewebsites.net domain.
5. If you are developing a Node.js web application on Mac for deployment to Azure Websites, which tools might you use to manage your website? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows PowerShell
B. xplat-cli
C. Management portal
D. None of the above
Correct Answers: B and C
A. Incorrect: Windows PowerShell is supported only on Windows.
B. Correct: The cross-platform command-line interface (xplat-cli) would be useful here.
C. Correct: The management portal is accessible using a browser on a Mac.
D. Incorrect: Options B and C are valid.
6. Which of the following changes require you to update your DNS settings if you are using an A record to map your custom domain to your website? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deleting and re-adding the SSL certificate
B. Deleting the website and re-deploying
C. Enabling SSL after configuring the A record
D. Switching your web hosting plan to Free tier and then back to Standard
Correct answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
B. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
C. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
D. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
7. Which of the following tools would you not use to diagnose a problem on a production site to avoid disturbing visitors while diagnosing?
A. Log streaming
B. Remote debugger
C. Event log
D. Application log
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: This will not disturb visitors since log-streaming displays logs that are collected in the background.
B. Correct: When you are stopped in a breakpoint, this will stop the website from responding to all requests, and therefore certainly disturb visitors.
C. Incorrect: This will not disturb visitors. Event logs are collected in the background without interfering with requests.
D. Incorrect: This will not disturb visitors. Application logs are collected in the background without interfering with requests.
8. With endpoint monitoring, you can perform all of the following except what?
A. Configure alerts to send automated emails
B. Auto-scale
C. Perform outside-in monitoring
D. Monitor from multiple geographic locations
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: The sending of automated alert emails can be enabled along with endpoint monitoring.
B. Correct: Auto-scale is not related to endpoint monitoring.
C. Incorrect: Outside-in monitoring can be enabled along with endpoint monitoring.
D. Incorrect: Monitoring from multiple geographic locations can be enabled along with endpoint monitoring.
9. Out of the box, where can website diagnostic logs be stored? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Website file system
B. Azure Storage
C. SQL Database
D. Email
Correct answers: A and B
A. Correct: The file system is a storage location for diagnostic logs.
B. Correct: Azure Storage is a storage location for diagnostic logs.
C. Incorrect: This is not a valid location for diagnostic logs out of the box.
D. Incorrect: This is not a valid location for the diagnostic log
10. Which of the following is NOT true about WebJobs?
A. They can only be triggered by a queue message.
B. They must be deployed with a web application.
C. They can only be written in C#.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: WebJobs can be triggered by both queue messages and blobs.
B. Incorrect: WebJobs can be created as standalone executables or scripts.
C. Incorrect: WebJobs can be written in multiple languages.
D. Correct: All options in A, B, and C are not true.
11. A recurring WebJob can be configured to recur every how often? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Second
B. Minute
C. Hour
D. Day
E. Week
F. Month
Correct answers: B, C, D, E, and F
A. Incorrect: WebJobs do not support a 1-second recurrence.
B. Correct: WebJobs can recur every minute.
C. Correct: WebJobs can recur every hour.
D. Correct: WebJobs can recur every day.
E. Correct: WebJobs can recur every week.
F. Correct: WebJobs can recur every month.
12. A WebJob can be triggered as a result of which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A new blob added to a container
B. A new message in a storage queue
C. An on-demand request
D. A SQL trigger
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: WebJobs can be triggered from a blob.
B. Correct: WebJobs can be triggered by a message in a Storage queue.
C. Correct: WebJobs can be triggered on demand.
D. Incorrect: WebJobs cannot be triggered from a SQL trigger
13. The failover load balancing method is also a feature of which of the following?
A. Failover
B. Round robin
C. Performance
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: While correct, failover load balancing can occur with round-robin and performance methods.
B. Incorrect: While correct, failover load balancing can occur with failover and performance methods.
C. Incorrect: While correct, failover load balancing can occur with failover and round-robin methods.
D. Correct: Failover occurs with all load balancing methods.
14. Which one of the following does auto-scale control?
A. Instance size
B. Instance count
C. Instance region
D. Instance memory
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: Instance size is not affected by auto-scale.
B. Correct: Instance count is controlled by auto-scale.
C. Incorrect: The region is not affected by the auto-scale.
D. Incorrect: The memory (or instance size) is not affected by auto-scale.
15. If you have a website set up with Traffic Manager for failover and the primary endpoint fails, what is the minimum amount of time active users will wait to failover to the next endpoint?
A. 0 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 500 seconds
D. 3,600 seconds
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
B. Correct: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
C. Incorrect: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
D. Incorrect: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
16. Which of these is not an example of throttling?
A. Server crash
B. Responding with server busy
C. Switching over to lower bit-rate streaming
D. Handling high-priority requests differently than low-priority requests when under load
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: This is not an example of throttling.
B. Incorrect: This is an example of throttling.
C. Incorrect: This is an example of throttling.
D. Incorrect: This is an example of throttling.
17. If a transient fault is expected to take a long time to resolve for a service operation that is frequently invoked, which pattern might you consider implementing for the client?
A. Throttling
B. Retry
C. Transient
D. Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: Throttling would not benefit the client.
B. Incorrect: Retry is best for faults that will get resolved within a short period.
C. Incorrect: This is not a pattern.
D. Correct: The Circuit Breaker pattern is best for dealing with faults that might take some time to resolve.
18. After deploying a website that has multiple instances, you discover that one instance, in particular, seems to be handling most of the load. What is one possible culprit?
A. ARR affinity
B. Throttling
C. Transient fault handling
D. Retries
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: It might be that users are all being directed to one server due to ARR affinity.
B. Incorrect: This is not a likely culprit for this load on a single instance.
C. Incorrect: This is not a likely culprit for this load on a single instance.
D. Incorrect: This is not a likely culprit for this load on a single instance
19. Which of the following are true regarding the types of workloads that you can deploy from the Marketplace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Single instance virtual machines
B. Linux virtual machines
C. Clusters of virtual machines
D. None of the above
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: The Marketplace supplies a number of choices for single instance VMs including those with only an operating system installed (for example, Windows, Linux), those with pre-installed server software (for example, SQL Server, SharePoint) and those with pre-installed applications based on PHP, Node.js, and other platforms.
B. Correct: The Marketplace supplies a number of pre-configured Ubuntu Linux VM images.
C. Correct: The Marketplace supplies options for creating multi-VM clusters for SharePoint, SQL Server Always On, BizTalk, and SAP. In addition, there are third-party multi-VM templates for products, such as DataStax Cassandra clusters.
D. Incorrect: All of the above are supported workloads.
20. Which of the following is not true about the Marketplace?
A. All images are community-provided.
B. Some of the images have no additional costs beyond the Azure VM pricing.
C. Some of the images have additional costs for the software they provide.
D. There is a mixture of first-party, third-party, and community images.
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: The Marketplace supports a mixture of free and paid VMs, as well as Microsoft and third-party, and community images.
B. Incorrect: Many images obtained through the Marketplace include the license for the software on the image as part of the cost of the VM. If you upload your own VM with software installed, you must obtain those licenses separately.
C. Incorrect: Some images include software that will require a separate purchase from the third-party vendor (for example, ClearDB MySQL).
D. Incorrect: The Marketplace has a mixture of images provided by Microsoft, by third-party vendors, and by the Open Source community
21. Which of the following is a supported VM workload? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Running Visual Studio (with an MSDN account)
B. Running Windows 8
C. Running Ubuntu
D. Running the Java Development Kit
Correct answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: There is a VM image with Visual Studio pre-installed.
B. Correct: There are several VM images with Windows 8 pre-installed.
C. Correct: There are several Ubuntu VM images, including the latest versions with Long Term Support (LTS).
D. Correct: There is a VM image with the JDK pre-installed.
22. Which of the following is not a tool used for generalizing a VM? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Sysprep
B. waagent
C. reset
D. generalize
Correct answers: C and D
A. Incorrect: This is a tool for generalizing Windows VMs.
B. Incorrect: This is a tool for generalizing Linux VMs.
C. Correct: This is not a tool for generalizing VMs.
D. Correct: This is not a tool for generalizing VMs.
23. Which of the following diagnostics are valid options for creating a disk?
A. Create an operating system disk from a single VHD
B. Create an operating system disk from multiple VHDs
C. Create a data disk from a single VHD
D. Create a data disk from multiple VHDs
Correct answers: A and C
A. Correct: An operating system disk can only be created from a single VHD.
B. Incorrect: A data disk cannot be created from a single VHD.
C. Correct: A data disk can only be created from a single VHD.
D. Incorrect: A data disk cannot be created from a single VHD.
24. Which of the following are valid options for creating a VM image? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Capture a VM image from a running VM instance
B. Capture a VM image from a stopped (de-allocated) VM instance
C. Create a VM image from a single VHD
D. Capture a VM image from a VM instance running Linux
Correct answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: You can capture a VM image while the VM instance is running.
B. Correct: You can capture a VM image when a VM is stopped.
C. Correct: You can capture a VM image from a single VHD.
D. Correct: You can capture a VM image from an existing VM image that is running Linux.
25. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The VM Agent is always installed with a new Windows VM image.
B. The Custom Script Extension can be enabled while creating a VM in either the management portal.
C. PowerShell DSC is always installed on a new Windows VM image.
D. Chef client can be enabled for both Windows and Linux-based VM images.
E. Puppet Enterprise agents can be enabled for both Windows and Linux-based VM images.
Correct answers: B, D, and E
A. Incorrect: VM Agent is selected by default when you create a VM; however, it can be cleared so that the agent is not installed to the new image.
B. Correct: In both portals, if the VM Agent is enabled, you can also optionally enable the Custom Script Extension.
C. Incorrect: PowerShell DSC is not installed by default, but if the VM Agent is enabled, you can select PowerShell DSC from the Preview portal only.
D. Correct: Chef Client is available for both Windows and Linux operating systems and can be enabled through either portal only if the VM Agent is enabled.
E. Correct: Puppet Enterprise Agent is available for both Windows and Linux operating systems and can be enabled through either portal only if the VM Agent is enabled.
26. What are examples of built-in resources that you can configure using PowerShell DSC? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows features
B. Network topology
C. Files and directories
D. File archives (zip files)
E. Registry settings
F. Windows PowerShell scripts
G. Users
Correct answers: A, C, D, E, F, and G
A. Correct: Use the Windows Feature resource.
B. Incorrect: Network configuration is not a directly exposed resource.
C. Correct: Use the File resource.
D. Correct: Use the Archive resource.
E. Correct: Use the Registry resource.
F. Correct: Use the Script resource.
G. Correct: Use the User resource.
27. Which of the following are accurate statements? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Custom Script Extension and PowerShell DSC are one and the same.
B. DSC provides the same features and functionality as Puppet and Chef.
C. Windows PowerShell scripts can be leveraged by Custom Script Extension, DSC, Puppet, and Chef configuration management tools.
D. DSC cannot automatically update VMs without pushing an instruction via Windows PowerShell.
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: Custom Script Extension is able to run a script and copy resources when a VM starts or is created, but it cannot ensure the VM state matches a defined configuration.
B. Incorrect: DSC overlaps with Puppet and Chef in that it can be used to configure new and existing VMs and can update those VMs to the desired target state. DSC does not provide a management console to manage how scripts are assigned to nodes, to monitor nodes, or to do other global view configuration management tasks.
C. Correct: DSC is based on Windows PowerShell. Windows PowerShell and DSC scripts can be used by Puppet and Chef configurations.
D. Incorrect: DSC can be configured to push updates to server nodes and to have the local configuration manager pull updates periodically to update the state of a node.
28. Which of the following is not true regarding instance-level public IP (PIP) address endpoints? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Requests using PIPs do not flow through the load balancer.
B. If you enable PIPs, you can no longer communicate via the VIP and port configured for a VM.
C. PIPs free you from having to expose a VM endpoint on specific ports.
D. A PIP can be assigned only to VMs that are a part of a regional virtual network.
Correct answers: A and B
A. Correct: All requests flow through the load balancer.
B. Correct: You can use both the PIP and VIP plus port.
C. Incorrect: PIPs enable you to communicate across all ports.
D. Incorrect: A VM must belong to a regional VNET in order to be assigned a PIP.
29. In which of the following conditions will a reserved IP address be released?
A. VM associated with it is stopped and de-allocated.
B. The cloud service using it is deleted.
C. All VMs using it are deleted.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: A VM can safely be stopped without losing the reserved IP address.
B. Incorrect: If a cloud service is deleted, the reserved IP address is preserved.
C. Incorrect: VMs using a reserved IP can be safely deleted without losing the reserved IP address.
D. Correct: A reserved IP is only released explicitly, and its lifetime is associated with a subscription, not a particular VM or cloud service
30. How does the Azure load balancer distribute the load?
A. In a round-robin fashion
B. Randomly
C. Based on resource utilization
D. Based on network response times
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: The load balancer does not distribute the load with a round-robin approach.
B. Correct: Load is distributed using a hashing approach, which distributes load fairly randomly.
C. Incorrect: The load balancer does not distribute the load based on resource utilization.
D. Incorrect: The load balancer does not distribute the load based on network response times.
31. Which of the following are true regarding the capacity and performance-related features that are affected by changing an instance size? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The number of attachable disks
B. The size of attachable disks
C. The number of CPU cores
D. The amount of RAM
Correct answers: A, C, and D
A. Correct: As you increase the VM instance size, you increase the number of disks you can attach to the VM.
B. Incorrect: The maximum size of an attached disk is controlled by Azure Storage page blob size constraints (1 terabyte) and not by the VM size.
C. Correct: As you increase the VM instance size, you increase the number of cores available to the VM.
D. Correct: As you increase the VM instance size, you increase the amount of RAM available to the VM.
32. Which of these is not true regarding availability sets?
A. All VMs within an availability set must have the same instance size.
B. The VMs within an availability set can be within different cloud services.
C. It is a best practice to place VMs from a single application tier in the same availability set.
D. You can assign a VM to an availability set after it has been created.
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: A VM can safely be stopped without losing the reserved IP address.
B. Incorrect: If a cloud service is deleted, the reserved IP address is preserved.
C. Incorrect: VMs using a reserved IP can be safely deleted without losing the reserved IP address.
D. Correct: A reserved IP is only released explicitly, and its lifetime is associated with a subscription, not a particular VM or cloud service.
33. On what resource do you configure auto-scale?
A. Cloud service
B. Virtual machine
C. Availability set
D. Update domain
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: Auto-scale is not configurable on a cloud service, but rather on an availability set within a cloud service.
B. Incorrect: VMs must belong to an availability set to benefit from auto-scale.
C. Correct: Auto-scale can only be configured on an availability set.
D. Incorrect: An update domain is unrelated to auto-scale. VMs in an availability set may traverse several update domains for fault tolerance.
34. Which of the following is not an option for managing and interacting with Azure File storage? (Choose all that apply.)
A. AZCopy
B. Windows PowerShell
C. Storage Client Library
D. REST APIs
E. SMB 3.0
Correct Answer: E
A. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
B. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
C. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
D. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
E. Correct: Azure File storage is compatible with SMB 2.1, not SMB 3.0.
35. Which of the following scenarios is not a valid option for host caching?
A. An operating system disk with a host caching setting of None
B. An operating system disk with a host caching setting of reading Only
C. A data disk with a host caching setting of None
D. A data disk with a host caching setting Ready Only
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: The host caching setting of None is not valid for operating system disks.
B. Incorrect: The Host Caching setting of Read-Only is valid for operating system disks.
C. Incorrect: The Host Caching setting of None is valid for data disks.
D. Incorrect: The Host Caching setting of Read-Only is valid for data disks
36. If you are using storage pools, which of the following is a valid replication option for the Azure Storage account that stores the VHD blobs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Locally redundant
B. Geo-redundant
C. Read-access geo-redundant
D. Zone redundant
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: The only valid option is locally redundant replication.
B. Incorrect: Geo-redundant replication yields corrupted disks if you try to restore from a replicated file.
C. Incorrect: Read-access geo-redundant replication yields corrupted disks if you try to restore from a replicated file.
D. Incorrect: Zone redundant replication can only be used with block blobs. VHDs are created using page blobs, so this is not a valid option.
37. Which of the following is not an option for the time period over which metrics used for alerts are evaluated? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The last value measured
B. The last 5 minutes
C. The last hour
D. The last 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: Alerts use metrics computed over an aggregate time period, with the minimum period being 5 minutes and the maximum 24 hours.
B. Incorrect: Metrics can be evaluated on a 5-minute interval.
C. Incorrect: Metrics can be evaluated on an hourly interval.
D. Incorrect: Metrics can be evaluated on a 24-hour interval.
38. Which of the following diagnostics is not available for querying from Table storage?
A. Diagnostic infrastructure logs
B. Windows System event logs
C. Performance counters
D. IIS logs
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: Diagnostics logs are available from Table storage.
B. Incorrect: Windows System event logs are available from Table storage.
C. Incorrect: Performance Counter metrics are available from Table storage.
D. Correct: IIS logs can be retrieved only from Blob storage, not Table storage.
39. If you do not enable diagnostics, which of the following diagnostics will you have? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Disk read and write
B. CPU percentage
C. Network in and network out
D. Disk read guest operating system and disk write a guest operating system
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: By default, Disk Read and Write diagnostics are collected.
B. Correct: By default, CPU percentage diagnostics are collected.
C. Correct: By default, Network In and Network Out diagnostics are collected.
D. Incorrect: Without diagnostics enabled, you have access only to the five metrics that are exposed by the VM host (Read/Write, CPU percentage, Network In/Out) and not the guest operating system.
40. Which of the following emulators is installed with the Azure SDK? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Service bus emulator
B. Virtual machine emulator
C. Compute emulator
D. Storage emulator
41. Which of the following is true about the Cloud Services feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Before you create a cloud service project, you have to know which web and
worker roles you will include in the cloud service solution.
B. The only way to create a worker role that listens to a Service Bus queue is to select
the role template while creating the cloud service project.
C. You must provide an implementation for the RoleEntryPoint when creating a
worker role.
D. Web.config settings do not work with web roles. You have to use a cloud service
configuration settings.
42. Which of these is true about startup tasks? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Simple tasks run before the role starts processing requests.
B. Foreground tasks run before the role starts accepting requests.
C. Background tasks run before the role starts accepting requests.
D. A startup task can interact with the RoleEnvironment object
43. Which of the following is not true regarding scaling the instance count of a cloud service? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can only scale in even multiples.
B. You must pre-provision all role instances before scaling up.
C. You can scale the instance count using the auto-scale.
D. You can scale the instance count using the existing portal.
44. Which of the following is NOT true about cloud service networking?
A. You can use network traffic rules to restrict inter-role communication.
B. You can configure ACL to restrict access to a specified subnet.
C. You cannot join a cloud service to a virtual network.
D. A public IP does not require a port to reach a role instance.
45. Which of the following are valid configuration options for In-Role Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Dedicated cache
B.Persistent cache
C.Co-located cache
D.Named cache
46. Which of the following is not included within a cloud service application package? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Compiled application code
B.Cloud service configuration (*.cscfg)
C.Dependent assemblies
D.Cloud service definition (*.csdef)
47. Which of the following situations prevent you from performing an upgrade deployment? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Increase in the VM instance size
B.Change in the name of a role
C.Adjustment in the upgrade domain count
D.Reduction in the size of local storage resources
48. Which of the following is true regarding the VIP swap? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can swap an environment from staging to production and back to production.
B. A VIP swap moves a deployment between hosts.
C. A VIP swap re-maps only the VIP.
D. A VIP swap is a time-consuming operation
49. Which of the following is not true regarding debugging cloud services? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can attach the debugger to a role instance running within Azure.
B. You can attach the debugger to a cloud service running within Azure.
C. You cannot debug cloud services role instances locally.
D. You can debug a cloud service role instance using IntelliTrace.
50. Which of the following is the correct way to configure diagnostics?
A. Configure diagnostics via code.
B. Configure diagnostics by using the app.config.
C. Configure diagnostics by editing the diagnostics.wadcfgx.
D. None of the above.
51. How many instances of a role does the Emulator Express support?
A. One
B. Two
C. Ten
D. Twenty-five
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: A website can have up to four deployment slots besides the main slot, not just two.
B. Incorrect: A website can have up to four deployment slots besides the main slot, not just three.
C. Correct: A website can have up to four deployment slots besides the main slot.
D. Incorrect: A website can have a maximum of four deployment slots besides the main slot.
2. For a website to be co-located with other websites in the same web hosting plan, what must they have in common? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Subscription
B. Region
C. Resource group
D. Pricing tier
Correct Answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: Websites must share the same subscription.
B. Correct: Websites must share the same region.
C. Correct: Websites must share the same resource group.
D. Correct: Websites must share the same pricing tier.
3. How can you create a new web hosting plan?
A. Directly, by clicking New on the command bar
B. By creating a new website and then choosing an existing web hosting plan
C. By creating a new website and then creating a new web hosting plan
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: Web hosting plans cannot be created directly.
B. Incorrect: This would not result in a new web hosting plan.
C. Correct: A web hosting plan can only be created as a step in creating a new website or in migrating the website to a new web hosting plan.
D. Incorrect: A web hosting plan can only be created as a step in creating a new website or in migrating the website to a new web hosting plan.
4. Why should you set up your own SSL certificate versus using the certificate for *.azurewebsites.net? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The *.azurewebsites.net certificate is more susceptible to phishing attacks.
B. The *.azurewebsites.net certificate is less secure.
C. You cannot use the *.azurewebsites.net certificate with a custom domain name.
D. Your data is not encrypted in transit with the *.azurewebsites.net certificate.
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: Because the certificate does not identify the subdomain, it becomes possible to lure users to a similarly named website pretending to be yours.
B. Region
C. Resource group
D. Pricing tier
Correct Answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: Websites must share the same subscription.
B. Correct: Websites must share the same region.
C. Correct: Websites must share the same resource group.
D. Correct: Websites must share the same pricing tier.
3. How can you create a new web hosting plan?
A. Directly, by clicking New on the command bar
B. By creating a new website and then choosing an existing web hosting plan
C. By creating a new website and then creating a new web hosting plan
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: Web hosting plans cannot be created directly.
B. Incorrect: This would not result in a new web hosting plan.
C. Correct: A web hosting plan can only be created as a step in creating a new website or in migrating the website to a new web hosting plan.
D. Incorrect: A web hosting plan can only be created as a step in creating a new website or in migrating the website to a new web hosting plan.
4. Why should you set up your own SSL certificate versus using the certificate for *.azurewebsites.net? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The *.azurewebsites.net certificate is more susceptible to phishing attacks.
B. The *.azurewebsites.net certificate is less secure.
C. You cannot use the *.azurewebsites.net certificate with a custom domain name.
D. Your data is not encrypted in transit with the *.azurewebsites.net certificate.
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: Because the certificate does not identify the subdomain, it becomes possible to lure users to a similarly named website pretending to be yours.
B. Correct: Because the private key is used to decrypt all Azure traffic, its compromise would mean compromising your website security—which would not be possible if you had your own certificate.
C. Correct: You can only use the *.azurewebsites.net certificate against that domain.
D. Incorrect: Data is encrypted with the certificate for the *.azurewebsites.net domain.
5. If you are developing a Node.js web application on Mac for deployment to Azure Websites, which tools might you use to manage your website? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows PowerShell
B. xplat-cli
C. Management portal
D. None of the above
Correct Answers: B and C
A. Incorrect: Windows PowerShell is supported only on Windows.
B. Correct: The cross-platform command-line interface (xplat-cli) would be useful here.
C. Correct: The management portal is accessible using a browser on a Mac.
D. Incorrect: Options B and C are valid.
6. Which of the following changes require you to update your DNS settings if you are using an A record to map your custom domain to your website? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deleting and re-adding the SSL certificate
B. Deleting the website and re-deploying
C. Enabling SSL after configuring the A record
D. Switching your web hosting plan to Free tier and then back to Standard
Correct answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
B. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
C. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
D. Correct: This will likely yield a new IP address for the website, so the A record needs to be updated.
7. Which of the following tools would you not use to diagnose a problem on a production site to avoid disturbing visitors while diagnosing?
A. Log streaming
B. Remote debugger
C. Event log
D. Application log
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: This will not disturb visitors since log-streaming displays logs that are collected in the background.
B. Correct: When you are stopped in a breakpoint, this will stop the website from responding to all requests, and therefore certainly disturb visitors.
C. Incorrect: This will not disturb visitors. Event logs are collected in the background without interfering with requests.
D. Incorrect: This will not disturb visitors. Application logs are collected in the background without interfering with requests.
8. With endpoint monitoring, you can perform all of the following except what?
A. Configure alerts to send automated emails
B. Auto-scale
C. Perform outside-in monitoring
D. Monitor from multiple geographic locations
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: The sending of automated alert emails can be enabled along with endpoint monitoring.
B. Correct: Auto-scale is not related to endpoint monitoring.
C. Incorrect: Outside-in monitoring can be enabled along with endpoint monitoring.
D. Incorrect: Monitoring from multiple geographic locations can be enabled along with endpoint monitoring.
9. Out of the box, where can website diagnostic logs be stored? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Website file system
B. Azure Storage
C. SQL Database
D. Email
Correct answers: A and B
A. Correct: The file system is a storage location for diagnostic logs.
B. Correct: Azure Storage is a storage location for diagnostic logs.
C. Incorrect: This is not a valid location for diagnostic logs out of the box.
D. Incorrect: This is not a valid location for the diagnostic log
10. Which of the following is NOT true about WebJobs?
A. They can only be triggered by a queue message.
B. They must be deployed with a web application.
C. They can only be written in C#.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: WebJobs can be triggered by both queue messages and blobs.
B. Incorrect: WebJobs can be created as standalone executables or scripts.
C. Incorrect: WebJobs can be written in multiple languages.
D. Correct: All options in A, B, and C are not true.
11. A recurring WebJob can be configured to recur every how often? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Second
B. Minute
C. Hour
D. Day
E. Week
F. Month
Correct answers: B, C, D, E, and F
A. Incorrect: WebJobs do not support a 1-second recurrence.
B. Correct: WebJobs can recur every minute.
C. Correct: WebJobs can recur every hour.
D. Correct: WebJobs can recur every day.
E. Correct: WebJobs can recur every week.
F. Correct: WebJobs can recur every month.
12. A WebJob can be triggered as a result of which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A new blob added to a container
B. A new message in a storage queue
C. An on-demand request
D. A SQL trigger
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: WebJobs can be triggered from a blob.
B. Correct: WebJobs can be triggered by a message in a Storage queue.
C. Correct: WebJobs can be triggered on demand.
D. Incorrect: WebJobs cannot be triggered from a SQL trigger
13. The failover load balancing method is also a feature of which of the following?
A. Failover
B. Round robin
C. Performance
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: While correct, failover load balancing can occur with round-robin and performance methods.
B. Incorrect: While correct, failover load balancing can occur with failover and performance methods.
C. Incorrect: While correct, failover load balancing can occur with failover and round-robin methods.
D. Correct: Failover occurs with all load balancing methods.
14. Which one of the following does auto-scale control?
A. Instance size
B. Instance count
C. Instance region
D. Instance memory
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: Instance size is not affected by auto-scale.
B. Correct: Instance count is controlled by auto-scale.
C. Incorrect: The region is not affected by the auto-scale.
D. Incorrect: The memory (or instance size) is not affected by auto-scale.
15. If you have a website set up with Traffic Manager for failover and the primary endpoint fails, what is the minimum amount of time active users will wait to failover to the next endpoint?
A. 0 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 500 seconds
D. 3,600 seconds
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
B. Correct: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
C. Incorrect: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
D. Incorrect: The minimum TTL is 30 seconds; a user would experience at least that.
16. Which of these is not an example of throttling?
A. Server crash
B. Responding with server busy
C. Switching over to lower bit-rate streaming
D. Handling high-priority requests differently than low-priority requests when under load
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: This is not an example of throttling.
B. Incorrect: This is an example of throttling.
C. Incorrect: This is an example of throttling.
D. Incorrect: This is an example of throttling.
17. If a transient fault is expected to take a long time to resolve for a service operation that is frequently invoked, which pattern might you consider implementing for the client?
A. Throttling
B. Retry
C. Transient
D. Circuit Breaker
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: Throttling would not benefit the client.
B. Incorrect: Retry is best for faults that will get resolved within a short period.
C. Incorrect: This is not a pattern.
D. Correct: The Circuit Breaker pattern is best for dealing with faults that might take some time to resolve.
18. After deploying a website that has multiple instances, you discover that one instance, in particular, seems to be handling most of the load. What is one possible culprit?
A. ARR affinity
B. Throttling
C. Transient fault handling
D. Retries
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: It might be that users are all being directed to one server due to ARR affinity.
B. Incorrect: This is not a likely culprit for this load on a single instance.
C. Incorrect: This is not a likely culprit for this load on a single instance.
D. Incorrect: This is not a likely culprit for this load on a single instance
19. Which of the following are true regarding the types of workloads that you can deploy from the Marketplace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Single instance virtual machines
B. Linux virtual machines
C. Clusters of virtual machines
D. None of the above
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: The Marketplace supplies a number of choices for single instance VMs including those with only an operating system installed (for example, Windows, Linux), those with pre-installed server software (for example, SQL Server, SharePoint) and those with pre-installed applications based on PHP, Node.js, and other platforms.
B. Correct: The Marketplace supplies a number of pre-configured Ubuntu Linux VM images.
C. Correct: The Marketplace supplies options for creating multi-VM clusters for SharePoint, SQL Server Always On, BizTalk, and SAP. In addition, there are third-party multi-VM templates for products, such as DataStax Cassandra clusters.
D. Incorrect: All of the above are supported workloads.
20. Which of the following is not true about the Marketplace?
A. All images are community-provided.
B. Some of the images have no additional costs beyond the Azure VM pricing.
C. Some of the images have additional costs for the software they provide.
D. There is a mixture of first-party, third-party, and community images.
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: The Marketplace supports a mixture of free and paid VMs, as well as Microsoft and third-party, and community images.
B. Incorrect: Many images obtained through the Marketplace include the license for the software on the image as part of the cost of the VM. If you upload your own VM with software installed, you must obtain those licenses separately.
C. Incorrect: Some images include software that will require a separate purchase from the third-party vendor (for example, ClearDB MySQL).
D. Incorrect: The Marketplace has a mixture of images provided by Microsoft, by third-party vendors, and by the Open Source community
21. Which of the following is a supported VM workload? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Running Visual Studio (with an MSDN account)
B. Running Windows 8
C. Running Ubuntu
D. Running the Java Development Kit
Correct answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: There is a VM image with Visual Studio pre-installed.
B. Correct: There are several VM images with Windows 8 pre-installed.
C. Correct: There are several Ubuntu VM images, including the latest versions with Long Term Support (LTS).
D. Correct: There is a VM image with the JDK pre-installed.
22. Which of the following is not a tool used for generalizing a VM? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Sysprep
B. waagent
C. reset
D. generalize
Correct answers: C and D
A. Incorrect: This is a tool for generalizing Windows VMs.
B. Incorrect: This is a tool for generalizing Linux VMs.
C. Correct: This is not a tool for generalizing VMs.
D. Correct: This is not a tool for generalizing VMs.
23. Which of the following diagnostics are valid options for creating a disk?
A. Create an operating system disk from a single VHD
B. Create an operating system disk from multiple VHDs
C. Create a data disk from a single VHD
D. Create a data disk from multiple VHDs
Correct answers: A and C
A. Correct: An operating system disk can only be created from a single VHD.
B. Incorrect: A data disk cannot be created from a single VHD.
C. Correct: A data disk can only be created from a single VHD.
D. Incorrect: A data disk cannot be created from a single VHD.
24. Which of the following are valid options for creating a VM image? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Capture a VM image from a running VM instance
B. Capture a VM image from a stopped (de-allocated) VM instance
C. Create a VM image from a single VHD
D. Capture a VM image from a VM instance running Linux
Correct answers: A, B, C, and D
A. Correct: You can capture a VM image while the VM instance is running.
B. Correct: You can capture a VM image when a VM is stopped.
C. Correct: You can capture a VM image from a single VHD.
D. Correct: You can capture a VM image from an existing VM image that is running Linux.
25. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The VM Agent is always installed with a new Windows VM image.
B. The Custom Script Extension can be enabled while creating a VM in either the management portal.
C. PowerShell DSC is always installed on a new Windows VM image.
D. Chef client can be enabled for both Windows and Linux-based VM images.
E. Puppet Enterprise agents can be enabled for both Windows and Linux-based VM images.
Correct answers: B, D, and E
A. Incorrect: VM Agent is selected by default when you create a VM; however, it can be cleared so that the agent is not installed to the new image.
B. Correct: In both portals, if the VM Agent is enabled, you can also optionally enable the Custom Script Extension.
C. Incorrect: PowerShell DSC is not installed by default, but if the VM Agent is enabled, you can select PowerShell DSC from the Preview portal only.
D. Correct: Chef Client is available for both Windows and Linux operating systems and can be enabled through either portal only if the VM Agent is enabled.
E. Correct: Puppet Enterprise Agent is available for both Windows and Linux operating systems and can be enabled through either portal only if the VM Agent is enabled.
26. What are examples of built-in resources that you can configure using PowerShell DSC? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows features
B. Network topology
C. Files and directories
D. File archives (zip files)
E. Registry settings
F. Windows PowerShell scripts
G. Users
Correct answers: A, C, D, E, F, and G
A. Correct: Use the Windows Feature resource.
B. Incorrect: Network configuration is not a directly exposed resource.
C. Correct: Use the File resource.
D. Correct: Use the Archive resource.
E. Correct: Use the Registry resource.
F. Correct: Use the Script resource.
G. Correct: Use the User resource.
27. Which of the following are accurate statements? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Custom Script Extension and PowerShell DSC are one and the same.
B. DSC provides the same features and functionality as Puppet and Chef.
C. Windows PowerShell scripts can be leveraged by Custom Script Extension, DSC, Puppet, and Chef configuration management tools.
D. DSC cannot automatically update VMs without pushing an instruction via Windows PowerShell.
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: Custom Script Extension is able to run a script and copy resources when a VM starts or is created, but it cannot ensure the VM state matches a defined configuration.
B. Incorrect: DSC overlaps with Puppet and Chef in that it can be used to configure new and existing VMs and can update those VMs to the desired target state. DSC does not provide a management console to manage how scripts are assigned to nodes, to monitor nodes, or to do other global view configuration management tasks.
C. Correct: DSC is based on Windows PowerShell. Windows PowerShell and DSC scripts can be used by Puppet and Chef configurations.
D. Incorrect: DSC can be configured to push updates to server nodes and to have the local configuration manager pull updates periodically to update the state of a node.
28. Which of the following is not true regarding instance-level public IP (PIP) address endpoints? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Requests using PIPs do not flow through the load balancer.
B. If you enable PIPs, you can no longer communicate via the VIP and port configured for a VM.
C. PIPs free you from having to expose a VM endpoint on specific ports.
D. A PIP can be assigned only to VMs that are a part of a regional virtual network.
Correct answers: A and B
A. Correct: All requests flow through the load balancer.
B. Correct: You can use both the PIP and VIP plus port.
C. Incorrect: PIPs enable you to communicate across all ports.
D. Incorrect: A VM must belong to a regional VNET in order to be assigned a PIP.
29. In which of the following conditions will a reserved IP address be released?
A. VM associated with it is stopped and de-allocated.
B. The cloud service using it is deleted.
C. All VMs using it are deleted.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: A VM can safely be stopped without losing the reserved IP address.
B. Incorrect: If a cloud service is deleted, the reserved IP address is preserved.
C. Incorrect: VMs using a reserved IP can be safely deleted without losing the reserved IP address.
D. Correct: A reserved IP is only released explicitly, and its lifetime is associated with a subscription, not a particular VM or cloud service
30. How does the Azure load balancer distribute the load?
A. In a round-robin fashion
B. Randomly
C. Based on resource utilization
D. Based on network response times
Correct Answer: B
A. Incorrect: The load balancer does not distribute the load with a round-robin approach.
B. Correct: Load is distributed using a hashing approach, which distributes load fairly randomly.
C. Incorrect: The load balancer does not distribute the load based on resource utilization.
D. Incorrect: The load balancer does not distribute the load based on network response times.
31. Which of the following are true regarding the capacity and performance-related features that are affected by changing an instance size? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The number of attachable disks
B. The size of attachable disks
C. The number of CPU cores
D. The amount of RAM
Correct answers: A, C, and D
A. Correct: As you increase the VM instance size, you increase the number of disks you can attach to the VM.
B. Incorrect: The maximum size of an attached disk is controlled by Azure Storage page blob size constraints (1 terabyte) and not by the VM size.
C. Correct: As you increase the VM instance size, you increase the number of cores available to the VM.
D. Correct: As you increase the VM instance size, you increase the amount of RAM available to the VM.
32. Which of these is not true regarding availability sets?
A. All VMs within an availability set must have the same instance size.
B. The VMs within an availability set can be within different cloud services.
C. It is a best practice to place VMs from a single application tier in the same availability set.
D. You can assign a VM to an availability set after it has been created.
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: A VM can safely be stopped without losing the reserved IP address.
B. Incorrect: If a cloud service is deleted, the reserved IP address is preserved.
C. Incorrect: VMs using a reserved IP can be safely deleted without losing the reserved IP address.
D. Correct: A reserved IP is only released explicitly, and its lifetime is associated with a subscription, not a particular VM or cloud service.
33. On what resource do you configure auto-scale?
A. Cloud service
B. Virtual machine
C. Availability set
D. Update domain
Correct Answer: C
A. Incorrect: Auto-scale is not configurable on a cloud service, but rather on an availability set within a cloud service.
B. Incorrect: VMs must belong to an availability set to benefit from auto-scale.
C. Correct: Auto-scale can only be configured on an availability set.
D. Incorrect: An update domain is unrelated to auto-scale. VMs in an availability set may traverse several update domains for fault tolerance.
34. Which of the following is not an option for managing and interacting with Azure File storage? (Choose all that apply.)
A. AZCopy
B. Windows PowerShell
C. Storage Client Library
D. REST APIs
E. SMB 3.0
Correct Answer: E
A. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
B. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
C. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
D. Incorrect: This is a valid way to manage and interact with Azure File storage.
E. Correct: Azure File storage is compatible with SMB 2.1, not SMB 3.0.
35. Which of the following scenarios is not a valid option for host caching?
A. An operating system disk with a host caching setting of None
B. An operating system disk with a host caching setting of reading Only
C. A data disk with a host caching setting of None
D. A data disk with a host caching setting Ready Only
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: The host caching setting of None is not valid for operating system disks.
B. Incorrect: The Host Caching setting of Read-Only is valid for operating system disks.
C. Incorrect: The Host Caching setting of None is valid for data disks.
D. Incorrect: The Host Caching setting of Read-Only is valid for data disks
36. If you are using storage pools, which of the following is a valid replication option for the Azure Storage account that stores the VHD blobs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Locally redundant
B. Geo-redundant
C. Read-access geo-redundant
D. Zone redundant
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: The only valid option is locally redundant replication.
B. Incorrect: Geo-redundant replication yields corrupted disks if you try to restore from a replicated file.
C. Incorrect: Read-access geo-redundant replication yields corrupted disks if you try to restore from a replicated file.
D. Incorrect: Zone redundant replication can only be used with block blobs. VHDs are created using page blobs, so this is not a valid option.
37. Which of the following is not an option for the time period over which metrics used for alerts are evaluated? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The last value measured
B. The last 5 minutes
C. The last hour
D. The last 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
A. Correct: Alerts use metrics computed over an aggregate time period, with the minimum period being 5 minutes and the maximum 24 hours.
B. Incorrect: Metrics can be evaluated on a 5-minute interval.
C. Incorrect: Metrics can be evaluated on an hourly interval.
D. Incorrect: Metrics can be evaluated on a 24-hour interval.
38. Which of the following diagnostics is not available for querying from Table storage?
A. Diagnostic infrastructure logs
B. Windows System event logs
C. Performance counters
D. IIS logs
Correct Answer: D
A. Incorrect: Diagnostics logs are available from Table storage.
B. Incorrect: Windows System event logs are available from Table storage.
C. Incorrect: Performance Counter metrics are available from Table storage.
D. Correct: IIS logs can be retrieved only from Blob storage, not Table storage.
39. If you do not enable diagnostics, which of the following diagnostics will you have? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Disk read and write
B. CPU percentage
C. Network in and network out
D. Disk read guest operating system and disk write a guest operating system
Correct answers: A, B, and C
A. Correct: By default, Disk Read and Write diagnostics are collected.
B. Correct: By default, CPU percentage diagnostics are collected.
C. Correct: By default, Network In and Network Out diagnostics are collected.
D. Incorrect: Without diagnostics enabled, you have access only to the five metrics that are exposed by the VM host (Read/Write, CPU percentage, Network In/Out) and not the guest operating system.
40. Which of the following emulators is installed with the Azure SDK? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Service bus emulator
B. Virtual machine emulator
C. Compute emulator
D. Storage emulator
41. Which of the following is true about the Cloud Services feature? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Before you create a cloud service project, you have to know which web and
worker roles you will include in the cloud service solution.
B. The only way to create a worker role that listens to a Service Bus queue is to select
the role template while creating the cloud service project.
C. You must provide an implementation for the RoleEntryPoint when creating a
worker role.
D. Web.config settings do not work with web roles. You have to use a cloud service
configuration settings.
42. Which of these is true about startup tasks? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Simple tasks run before the role starts processing requests.
B. Foreground tasks run before the role starts accepting requests.
C. Background tasks run before the role starts accepting requests.
D. A startup task can interact with the RoleEnvironment object
43. Which of the following is not true regarding scaling the instance count of a cloud service? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can only scale in even multiples.
B. You must pre-provision all role instances before scaling up.
C. You can scale the instance count using the auto-scale.
D. You can scale the instance count using the existing portal.
44. Which of the following is NOT true about cloud service networking?
A. You can use network traffic rules to restrict inter-role communication.
B. You can configure ACL to restrict access to a specified subnet.
C. You cannot join a cloud service to a virtual network.
D. A public IP does not require a port to reach a role instance.
45. Which of the following are valid configuration options for In-Role Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Dedicated cache
B.Persistent cache
C.Co-located cache
D.Named cache
46. Which of the following is not included within a cloud service application package? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Compiled application code
B.Cloud service configuration (*.cscfg)
C.Dependent assemblies
D.Cloud service definition (*.csdef)
47. Which of the following situations prevent you from performing an upgrade deployment? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Increase in the VM instance size
B.Change in the name of a role
C.Adjustment in the upgrade domain count
D.Reduction in the size of local storage resources
48. Which of the following is true regarding the VIP swap? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can swap an environment from staging to production and back to production.
B. A VIP swap moves a deployment between hosts.
C. A VIP swap re-maps only the VIP.
D. A VIP swap is a time-consuming operation
49. Which of the following is not true regarding debugging cloud services? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can attach the debugger to a role instance running within Azure.
B. You can attach the debugger to a cloud service running within Azure.
C. You cannot debug cloud services role instances locally.
D. You can debug a cloud service role instance using IntelliTrace.
50. Which of the following is the correct way to configure diagnostics?
A. Configure diagnostics via code.
B. Configure diagnostics by using the app.config.
C. Configure diagnostics by editing the diagnostics.wadcfgx.
D. None of the above.
51. How many instances of a role does the Emulator Express support?
A. One
B. Two
C. Ten
D. Twenty-five
1 comment:
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